NDA/NA I & II
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LATEST UPDATE 2026
The official UPSC notification for NDA/NA (I & II) Examination 2026 was released on 10 December 2025, aiming to fill 394 vacancies. Interested candidates could apply online from 10 December 2025 to 30 December 2025. The NDA I Examination 2026 is scheduled to be conducted on 12 April 2026. As per the examination calendar, the NDA II 2026 notification was released on 20 May 2026, and the NDA II Examination 2026 is scheduled to be held on 13 September 2026.
IMPORTANT DATES
Union Public Service Commission publishes the NDA examination dates for both sessions through its official exam calendar. The NDA 2026 exam schedule was announced one year in advance, allowing candidates sufficient time to plan and prepare their strategy effectively. These dates are also important for other examination authorities, as they generally avoid scheduling exams with similar eligibility criteria on the same day. The NDA 1 exam is scheduled to be conducted on April 12, 2026.
The NDA 1 application form and official notification were released on December 10, 2025, and candidates can submit their applications until December 30, 2025. The NDA 2 notification will be issued on May 20, 2026, with the last date to apply being June 9, 2026.
The NDA 2026 schedule outlines all major events related to the examination, including the release of the application form and notification, issuance of the admit card, declaration of results, and publication of the answer key.
Events | Dates |
NDA I Notification | 10/12/2025 |
NDA I Appication Period | 10/12/2025 – 30/12/2025 |
NDA I Admit Card Release | First Week April 2026 |
NDA I Exam Date | 12/04/2026 |
NDA I Result Declaration | To Be Updated Soon |
VACANCY DETAILS
The NDA & NA Examination (I) 2026, as per the official UPSC notification released on December 10, 2025, offers a total of 394 vacancies for admission to the 157th Course of the National Defence Academy (NDA) and the 119th Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC), commencing from January 1, 2027 (or as specified in the notice).
Army: 208 vacancies
Navy: 42 vacancies
Air Force: 120 vacancies (92 for Flying Branch, 18 for Ground Duties (Tech), 10 for Ground Duties (Non-Tech))
Naval Academy (10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme): 24 vacancies
Key Notes:
Approximately 25 seats are reserved for women candidates across the wings, reflecting the inclusion of females in NDA since 2021.
Reservations apply for SC (15%), ST (7.5%), OBC (27%), and EWS (10%) categories as per government norms.
A small number of seats may be reserved for Persons with Disabilities (PwD), subject to physical eligibility.
The exact distribution and reservation details are available in the official NDA 2 2025 notification PDF on the UPSC website (upsc.gov.in).
SALARY STRUCTURE
The salary structure for candidates selected through NDA I follows the 7th Pay Commission guidelines and applies uniformly across the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force wings after the 3-year training period at the National Defence Academy (NDA), followed by service-specific training (1 year for Army at IMA, Navy at INA, and Air Force at AFA). During the NDA training, cadets receive a fixed monthly stipend of Rs.56,100 (Pay Level 10), which covers basic needs and is non-commissioned. Upon successful commissioning (as Lieutenant in Army, Sub-Lieutenant in Navy, or Flying Officer in Air Force), officers start at the same basic pay but with additional allowances, leading to an in-hand salary of approximately Rs.70,000–Rs.1,00,000 initially (varying by posting and DA rates, currently ~50% of basic pay). The structure emphasizes rank progression, with promotions based on service years, performance, and exams. The highest salary reaches Rs. 2,50,000 (fixed) for top ranks like Chief of Army Staff (COAS).
Rank-Wise Salary Structure (Basic Pay as per 7th CPC)
The basic pay is determined by Pay Levels in the Pay Matrix. Military Service Pay (MSP) of Rs.15,500 is added for ranks from Lieutenant to Brigadier. Dearness Allowance (DA) is revised periodically (currently ~50%, so ~Rs.28,050 on starting basic pay).
NDA Salary – Army, Navy, Air Force | |
NDA Posts or Ranks | Salary of NDA Officer (Per Month) |
Stipend during the training of the candidates in IMA | INR 56,100/ |
Lieutenant | INR 56,100/- to INR 1,77, 500/- |
Captain | INR 61,300/- to 01,93,900/- |
Major | INR 69,400/- to 02,07,200/- |
Lieutenant Colonel | INR 01,21,200/- to 02,12,400/- |
Colonel | INR 01,30,600/- to 02,15,900/- |
Brigadier | INR 01,39,600/- to 02,17,600/- |
Major General | INR 01,44,200/- to 02,18,200/- |
Lt. General HAG Scale | INR 01,82,200/- to 02,24,100/- |
HAG+ Scale | INR 02,05,400/- To 02,24,400/- |
VCOAS/ Army Cdr/ Lt Gen (NFSG) | INR 02,25,000/- Fixed |
COAS | INR 02,50,000/- Fixed |
ALLOWANCES & PERKS
NDA Allowances to the Cadets | |
Allowances to NDA Officers | Amount Payable |
Dearness Allowance | Admissible at the same rates and under the same conditions as are applicable to the civilian personnel from time to time. |
Kit Maintenance Allowances | INR 20,000/- Annually with Dress Allowances |
Para Allowance | Rs 10,500/- Per Month |
Special Forces Allowance | Rs 25,000/- Per Month |
Para Jump Instructor Allowance | Rs 10,500/- Per Month |
Project Allowance | Rs 3,400/- Per Month |
Para Reserve Allowance | Rs 2,625/- Per Month |
Technical Allowance (Tier-I) | Rs 3,000/- Per Month |
Technical Allowance (Tier-II) | Rs 4,500/- Per Month |
HOW TO APPLY
To apply for the NDA I exam, candidates had to submit applications online via upsconline.nic.in between December 10, 2025, and December 30, 2025. The process involved completing One-Time Registration (OTR), filling the form, uploading a photo, signature, and ID proof (e.g., Aadhaar), selecting exam centers, and paying Rs. 100 (exempt for SC/ST/females/sons of JCOs/NCOs/ORs). A correction window was open from July 7 to July 9, 2025. Since the application period has closed, candidates should await the admit card (expected September 3, 2025) and check upsconline.nic.in for updates.
Registration: Visit the official wbsite of UPSC. Click on “ONLINE APPLICATION FOR VARIOUS EXAMINATIONS OF UPSC” and read the instructions carefully and click on “Yes”.
Filling up the NDA application form: Candidates need to fill in their personal, academic, and contact details in the NDA application form and note down system-generated application numbers. They also have to create a password that will be used for future logins. Below are the details that the candidates should fill in the application form.
Basic details: Here, candidates need to fill in the category, nationality, personal details, select exam centres, date of birth, gender, father’s name or mother’s name, address, etc.
Preferences: On page 1 fill in the details such as name, gender, date of birth, parents’ name, nationality, etc., and click on “continue”. On page 2, select the options and mark them between 1 to 4 or mark ‘0’ if you do not want to give any preference. Those who are from Sainik/Military School or Son of JCO/NCO/Other Rank Officer must fill pages 3 & page 4.
Upload of Prescribed Documents & Images (Photographs and Scanned Signatures): upload photographs, signatures, and thumb impressions as per specification. Images that are not as per the prescribed specification shall not be considered and may lead to rejection of the application.
Choose your Test City. Pay the Examination Fee: Now Choose your Test City & Pay the Examination Fee. The application fees can be paid online or by depositing the money in any branch of SBI Bank.
Print the Confirmation page: The last step is to take printouts of the confirmation page, after successful payment of NDA application fees.
Application Fees
For General / OBC: 100/-
For SC / ST: (Nil)
For All Category Female: (Nil)
Note: Pay the Examination Fee Through Net Banking, Debit Card, or Credit Card or Pay the Exam Fee Through Cash E Challan Fee Mode Submit the Exam Fee at State Bank of India SBI Any Branches in India.
EXAM CENTERS
The UPSC NDA I exam is conducted at over 70-81 centers across India, including major cities like Agartala, Ahmedabad, Aizawl, Bengaluru, Bhopal, Chandigarh, Chennai, Delhi, Dispur, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Jammu, Kolkata, Lucknow, Mumbai, Nagpur, Port Blair, Shimla, and Thiruvananthapuram, with full state-wise lists in the official notification. Candidates select preferences during application on a first-come-first-serve basis; allotted centers are confirmed on the admit card, and no changes are allowed.
S. No | Exam Centers |
1 | AGARTALA |
2 | AGRA |
3 | AJMER |
4 | AHMEDABAD |
5 | AIZAWL |
6 | ALIGARH |
7 | ALMORA (UTTARAKHAND) |
8 | ANANTPUR (ANDHRA PRADESH) |
9 | CHHATRAPATI SAMBHAJINAGAR [AURANGABAD (MAHARASHTRA)] |
10 | BENGALURU |
11 | BAREILLY |
12 | BHOPAL |
13 | BHUBANESWAR |
14 | BILASPUR (CHHATISGARH) |
15 | CHANDIGARH |
16 | CHENNAI |
17 | COIMBATORE |
18 | CUTTACK |
19 | DEHRADUN |
20 | DELHI |
21 | DHARAMSHALA |
22 | DHARWAD |
23 | DISPUR |
24 | FARIDABAD |
25 | GANGTOK |
26 | GAYA |
27 | GAUTAM BUDDH NAGAR |
28 | GHAZIABAD |
29 | GORAKHPUR |
30 | GURUGRAM |
31 | GWALIOR |
32 | HYDERABAD |
33 | IMPHAL |
34 | INDORE |
35 | ITANAGAR |
36 | JABALPUR |
37 | JAIPUR |
38 | JAMMU |
39 | JODHPUR |
40 | JORHAT |
41 | KARGIL |
42 | KOCHI |
43 | KOHIMA |
44 | KOLKATA |
45 | KOZHIKODE (CALICUT) |
46 | LEH |
47 | LUCKNOW |
48 | LUDHIANA |
49 | MADURAI |
50 | MANDI |
51 | MUMBAI |
52 | MYSORE |
53 | NAGPUR |
54 | NASHIK |
55 | NAVI MUMBAI |
56 | PANAJI (GOA) |
57 | PATNA |
58 | SRI VIJAYA PURAM (PORT BLAIR) |
59 | PRAYAGRAJ (ALLAHABAD) |
60 | PUDUCHERRY |
61 | PUNE |
62 | RAIPUR |
63 | RAJKOT |
64 | RANCHI |
65 | SAMBALPUR |
66 | SHILLONG |
67 | SHIMLA |
68 | SILIGUDI |
69 | SRINAGAR |
70 | SRINAGAR (UTTARAKHAND) |
71 | SURAT |
72 | THANE |
73 | THIRUVANANTHAPURAM |
74 | TIRUCHIRAPALLI |
75 | TIRUPATI |
76 | UDAIPUR |
77 | VARANASI |
78 | VELLORE |
79 | VIJAYAVADA |
80 | VISHAKHAPATNAM |
81 | HANUMAKONDA (WARANGAL URBAN) |
ADMIT CARD
The NDA I Exam 2026 is scheduled for April 12, 2026, and its admit cards will likely be released by the UPSC around the first week of April, specifically around April 2, 2026, with direct download links available on the UPSC website a few days before the exam
Candidates can follow the below-mentioned steps to download admit card for the NDA exam:
Step 1- Visit the official website.
Step 2- On the home page, find ‘E-admit card National Defence Academy Examination,’ link.
Step 3- The login page opens in a new tab.
Step 4- Read the instructions carefully before downloading.
Step 5- Agree to the terms and conditions.
Step 6- Select any of the options – registration number or roll number.
Step 7- If candidates select the registration number option, they need to enter the registration number, date of birth, and random image.
Step 8- If candidates select the roll number option, they need to enter the roll number, date of birth, and random image.
Step 9- Click the ‘Submit’ button. Download the admit card and take its printout.
RESULTS
The UPSC NDA I 2026 written result is expected in May 2026, released as a PDF on upsc.gov.in with qualified roll numbers for the SSB interview. Final merit (written + SSB) follows in early 2026; download via official link, no login required for initial PDF.
The steps to check the NDA Results are given below:
Step 1- Go to the official website.
Step 2- NDA result opens on a new page in PDF form.
Step 3- Candidates can search their roll numbers and names in the result PDF through Ctrl+F.
Step 4- If their roll numbers and names are in the result PDF, this means candidates have qualified the exam.
Step 5- Download the result PDF and take its printout.
OVERVIEW
The National Defense Academy Exam, or NDA, is a Nationwide Entrance Exam Administered by UPSC for candidates wishing to join the defense services. The Exam is taken for Recruitment into the Army, Air Force and Naval Academy. The NDA Exam takes place twice a year in two stages Written exam and SSB interview. First the candidate must pass the Written Eexam, then he will be invited to an SSB interview, those who pass the interview must undergo a Full Medical Examination based on the standards set by the Board.
Particulars | Description |
Exam Full Name | National Defense Academy Exam |
Conducting Authority | Union Public Service Commission |
Admission Purpose | Recuitment into the Army, Airforce & Naval Academy |
Exam Level | National Level Exam |
Application Mode | Online |
Exam Date | 12 April 2026 |
Official Website |
SELECTION PROCESS
The NDA I selection process for admission to the National Defence Academy (NDA) and Naval Academy (NA) involves two stages:
Written Examination (900 marks): Conducted on April 12, 2026, it includes two objective MCQ papers: Mathematics (300 marks, 120 questions, 2.5 hours) and General Ability Test (GAT, 600 marks, 150 questions, 2.5 hours). Candidates must score a minimum of 25% in each paper to qualify. Negative marking applies (-0.83 for Maths, -1.33 for GAT).
SSB Interview (900 marks): Qualifiers of the written exam are called for a 5-day Services Selection Board (SSB) process, including:
Day 1: Screening (Officer Intelligence Rating, Picture Perception & Description Test).
Days 2–4: Psychological tests, group tasks (e.g., group discussion, obstacle course), and personal interview.
Day 5: Conference and final recommendation.
Medical Examination: Conducted post-SSB to ensure physical fitness (e.g., height, vision standards).
Final Merit List: Based on combined scores (Written + SSB, total 1800 marks). Top candidates (for 406 vacancies) join NDA (Pune) or INA (Ezhimala) for training starting January 1, 2026. Check upsc.gov.in for updates.
EXAM SYLLABUS
The NDA I Exam conducted by UPSC has two papers – Mathematics (300 marks) and General Ability Test – GAT (600 marks), followed by the SSB Interview (900 marks). The Mathematics paper covers Algebra, Trigonometry, Geometry, Mensuration, Statistics, Probability, Matrices & Determinants, Vectors, 3D, and Calculus. The GAT is divided into English (Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension, Usage) and General Knowledge, which includes Physics, Chemistry, Biology, History, Geography, Polity, Economy, and Current Affairs.
| Name of Test | Topic | Weightage |
| Mathematics | Algebra | 20 Q |
Matrices & Determinants | 10 Q | |
Trigonometry | 20 Q | |
Analytical Geometry Of Two and Three Dimensions | 16-20 Q | |
Differential Calculus | 25 Q | |
Integral Calculus and Differential Equations | 20 Q | |
Vector Algebra | 10 Q | |
Statistics and Probability | 10 Q | |
| General Ability Test | English | 50 Q |
General Knowledge : | 8-10 Q | |
History, Freedom & Movement, Geography | 20 Q | |
Current Events | 10 Q | |
Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology) | 35-40 Q |
MATHEMATICS DETAILED SYLLABUS
The detailed syllabus for Mathematics, along with Topic Description, Topic Example & Topic Difficulty, is given below:
| Topic | Topic Description | Topic Example | Topic Difficulty Level |
| Algebra | Concept of set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams. De Morgan laws, Cartesian product, relation, equivalence relation. | If one of the roots of the equation 2x2 + ax +b = 0 is 2, then what is (a – b) equal to? If 6x-5y = 13 , 7x + 2y = 23 , then 11x + 18 y =? | 10+2 level |
Representation of real numbers on a line. Complex numbers—basic properties, modulus, argument, cube roots of unity. Binary system of numbers. Conversion of a number in decimal system to binary system and vice versa. Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Quadratic equations with real coefficients. Solution of linear inequations of two variables by graphs. Permutation and Combination. Binomial theorem and its applications. Logarithms and their applications. | 10+2 level | ||
| Matrices & Determinants | Types of matrices, operations on matrices. Determinant of a matrix, basic properties of determinants. Adjoint and inverse of a square matrix, Applications-Solution of a system of linear | 10+2 level | |
| Trigonometry | Angles and their measures in degrees and in radians. Trigonometrical ratios. Trigonometric identities Sum and difference formulae. Multiple and Sub-multiple angles. Inverse trigonometric | If A= 18º then what is the value of 4 Sin2A + 2 Sin A? What is the value of (1080º) ? From the top of a building of height “h” meter, the angle of depression of an object on the ground is “A”. What is the distance (in meter) of the object from the foot of the building? | 10+2 level |
| Analytical Geometry Of Two and Three Dimensions | Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system. Distance formula. Equation of a line in various forms. Angle between two lines. Distance of a point from a line. Equation of a circle in standard and in general form. Standard forms of parabola, ellipse and hyperbola. Eccentricity and axis of a conic Point in a three-dimensional space, distance between two points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios. Equation two points Direction Cosines and direction ratios, Direction Cosines and direction ratios | What is the sum of the squares of direction cosines of the line joining the points (1,2,-3) & (-2, 3, 1) ? The angle of elevation of a tower at a level ground is 90º. The angle of elevation becomes “A” . when moved 2m towards the tower. If the height of tower is 1m, then what is “A” equal to? Two poles are 12m and 4m high. The line joining their tips makes an angle of 45º with the horizontal. What is the distance between the poles? | 10+2 level |
| Differential Calculus | Concept of a real valued function–domain, range and graph of a function. Composite functions, one to one, onto and inverse functions. Notion of limit, Standard limits—examples. Continuity of functions—examples, algebraic operations on continuous functions. Derivative of function at a point, geometrical and physical interpretation of a derivative—applications. Derivatives of sum, product and quotient of functions, derivative of a function with respect to another function, derivative of a composite function. Second order derivatives. Increasing and decreasing functions. Application of derivatives in problems of maxima and minima | What is the solution of differential equation y= ln x – ln y ?
| 10+2 level |
| Integral Calculus and Differential Equations | Integration as inverse of differentiation, integration by substitution and by parts, standard integrals involving algebraic expressions, trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions. Evaluation of definite integrals—determination of areas of plane regions bounded by curves—applications. | Find the general solution to the differential equation. ![]() ![]() | 10+2 level |
Definition of order and degree of a differential equation, formation of a differential equation by examples. General and particular solution of a differential equation, solution of first order Application in problems of growth and decay. | 10+2 level | ||
| Vector Algebra | Vectors in two and three dimensions, magnitude and direction of a vector. Unit and null vectors, addition of vectors, scalar multiplication of a vector, scalar product or dot product of Vector product or cross product of two vectors. Applications—work done by a force and moment of a force and in geometrical problems. | If a, b and c are unit vectors, then |a – b|2 + |b – c|2 + |c – a|2 does not exceed?
| 10+2 level |
| Statistics and Probability | Statistics : Classification of data, Frequency distribution, cumulative frequency distribution examples. Graphical representation—Histogram, Pie Chart, frequency polygon— Variance and standard deviation—determination and comparison. Correlation and regression. | The mean of 9 observations is 16. One more observation is included and the new mean becomes 17. What is the 10th observation? The average of x numbers is y and average of y numbers is x. Then, What is the average of all the numbers taken together? The mean weight of 34 students of a school is 42 kg. If the weight of the teacher be included, the mean rises by 400 g. find the weight of the teacher in kg | 10+2 level |
Probability : Union and Intersection of events. Complementary, elementary and composite events. Definition of probability—classical and statistical—examples. Elementary theorems on probability—simple problems. Conditional probability, Bayes’ theorem—simple problems. Random variable as function on a sample space. Binomial distribution, examples of random experiments giving rise to Binomial distribution. | What is the probability that a leap year selected at random contains 53 Saturdays? Three Discs are thrown. What is the probability that the same number will appear on each of them? Out of 400 first year students, 150 passes in first semester and 220 passed in the second semester. If 130 did not pass in either semester, how many passed in both semesters? | 10+2 level |
GENERAL ABILITY TEST DETAILED SYLLABUS
The detailed syllabus for General Ability Test along with Topic Description, Topic Example & Topic Difficulty, is given below :-
| Topic | Topic Description | Topic Example | Topic Difficulty Level |
| English | Grammar and usage, vocabulary, comprehension and cohesion in extended text to test the candidate’s proficiency in English. | Select the word that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word. | |
| Section ‘A’ (Physics) | Physical Properties and States of Matter, Mass, Weight, Volume, Density, and Specific Gravity, Principle of Archimedes, Pressure Barometer. | If some object is weighed when submerged in water, what will happen to its weight compared to its weight in air?
Which one of the following is the value of 1 kWh of energy converted into joules? Which one of the following is an example of the force of gravity of the earth acting on a vibrating pendulum bob? Two convex lenses with power 2 dioptre are kept in contact with each other. The focal length of the combined lens system is A container is first filled with water and then the entire water is replaced by mercury. Mercury has a density of 13.6 x 103 kg/m3. If X is the weight of the water and Y is the weight of the mercury, then How long does light take to reach the Earth from the Sun? | 10+2 level |
Barometer. Motion of objects, Velocity and Acceleration, Newton’s Laws of Motion, Force and Momentum, Parallelogram of Forces, Stability and Equilibrium of bodies, Gravitation, elementary ideas of work, Power and Energy. Effects of Heat, Measurement of Temperature and Heat, change of State and Latent Heat, Modes of Sound waves and their properties, Simple Rectilinear propagation of Light, Reflection and refraction. Spherical mirrors and Lenses, Human Eye. | |||
Natural and Artificial Magnets, Properties of a Magnet, Earth as a Magnet. | |||
Static and Current Electricity, conductors and Nonconductors, Ohm’s Law, Simple Electrical Circuits, Heating, Lighting and Magnetic effects of Current, Measurement of | |||
General Principles in the working of :- Simple Pendulum, Simple Pulleys, Siphon, Levers, Balloon, Pumps, Hydrometer, Pressure Cooker, Thermos Flask, Gramophone, Telegraphs, Telephone, Periscope, Telescope, | |||
| Section ‘B’ (Chemistry) | Physical and Chemical changes. Elements, Mixtures and Compounds, Symbols, Formulae and Simple Chemical Equations, Law of Chemical Combination (excluding problems). | The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state is Which compound, when dissolved in water, conducts electricity and forms a basic solution? The proposition ‘equal volumes of different gases contain equal numbers of molecules at the same temperature and pressure’ is known as Zinc is used to protect Iron from corrosion because zinc is | 10+2 level |
Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen and Carbon dioxide, Oxidation and Reduction. Acids, bases and salts. Carbon—different forms. Fertilizer —Natural and Paints, Safety Matches and Gun- Powder. Elementary ideas about the structure of Atom, Atomic Equivalent and Molecular Weights, Valency. | |||
| Section ‘C’ (General Science) | Difference between the living and non-living. Basis of Life—Cells, Protoplasms and Tissues. Growth and Reproduction in Plants an Animals. | Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for the biosynthesis of Melanin is the natural pigment that gives colour to human skin, hair and the iris. It provides protection against Tendons through which muscles are connected to bones are tightly compacted bundles of which one of the following long fibrous protein? | 10+2 level |
Elementary knowledge of Human Body and its important organs. Common Epidemics, their causes and prevention. | |||
Food—Source of Energy for man. Constituents of food, Balanced Diet. The Solar System—Meteors and Comets, Eclipses. | |||
| Section ‘D’ (History, Freedom Movement etc.) | A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation. | Who among the following is the author of the book The Indian Struggle, 1920 – 1934? Which one of the following associations was founded in London by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866? Which one of the following travelogues has given an insight on the reign of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq? | 10+2 level |
Freedom Movement in India. Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration. Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India. Panchayati Raj, Co-operatives and Community Development. Bhoodan, Sarvodaya, National Integration and | |||
Forces shaping the modern world; Renaissance, Exploration and Discovery; War of American Independence. French Revolution, Impact of Science Concept of one World, United Nations, Socialism and Communism. Role of India | |||
| Section ‘E’ (Geography) | The Earth, its shape and size. Lattitudes and Longitudes, Concept of time. International Date Line. Movements of Earth and their effects. | The Coriolis effect is the result of Which one of the following is not an igneous rock? Which one of the following States in India has the largest area under forest cover? Sunrise in eastern Arunachal Pradesh would be about how many hours before the sunrise in western Gujarat? Where is Mekong Delta located? | 10+2 level |
Origin of Earth. Rocks and their classification; Weathering—Mechanical and Chemical, Earthquakes and Volcanoes. Ocean Currents and Tides Atmosphere and its composition | |||
Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure, Planetary Winds, Cyclones and Anti-cyclones; Humidity; Condensation and Precipitation | |||
Types of Climate, Major Natural regions of the World. Regional Geography of India Climate, Natural vegetation. Mineral and Power resources; location and distribution of agricultural and Industrial activities | |||
Important Sea ports and main sea, land and air routes of India. Main items of Imports and Exports of India. | |||
| Section ‘F’ (Current Events) | Knowledge of Important events that have happened in India in the recent years. Current important world events. Prominent personalities—both Indian and International including those connected with cultural activities and sports. | In the recently concluded elections in 1 December 2020, Faustin-Archange Touadéra has won a second term in office as President of one of which country? | Based on Past 5-6 Months |
EXAM PATTERN
The first stage of the NDA selection process is a written exam and the second stage is an Interview round. It is also followed by a detailed medical examination, which the candidates must pass. Below, you will find all details regarding the different stages in the NDA selection:
Stage 1 – Written Exam
Stage 2 – Interview with SSB
Stage 3 – Medical Examination
Stage 4 – Document Verification
| Test Mode | Name of Test | No. of Questions | Maximum Marks | Duration |
| Objective Type Offline Pen & Paper Based Test | Mathematics | 120 Q | 300 Marks | 150 Minutes |
General Ability Test | 150 Q | 600 Marks | 150 Minutes | |
Total | 270 Q | 900 Marks | 300 Minutes |
Note :- Examination for Mathematics & General Ability Test will be held separately. A break will be provided to the candidates between Paper- I and Paper- II
Written Exam
According to the NDA selection process, the candidates will first have to appear for a written exam. It will be a three-hour, 900-mark objective test comprising of two sections – Mathematics and General Ability. Only the candidates who secure the minimum cut-off marks will be selected for the next stage of the recruitment process.
Document Verification
An essential component of the NDA selection process is document verification and submission. At the time of the interview, the selected candidates are required to bring their documents for verification.
1. Proof of education – 10th or 10+2 certificate.
2. Caste certificate for applicable candidates.
3. Proof of identity.
4. Proof of address.
SSB Interview
Stage 2 of the NDA selection process involves the interview conducted by the Services Selection Board (SSB) for all the candidates qualifying for NA and NDA posts. If you clear the written test, your interview call letter will reach you with all the details regarding the interview date, time, and venue.
Note:
1. That the final recruitment under the NDA selection process will be merit-based. The performance of candidates in the written test and interview will be considered for the same.
2. Candidates applying for the Air Force will have to qualify for the Pilot Aptitude Test (PAT) and Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS) in order to be considered for final selection.
3. The SSB interview process takes place over a duration of 4-5 days.
Medical Examination
Candidates who are shortlisted in the SSB interview round are recommended by the authorities for a detailed medical checkup. This is an integral part of the NDA selection process, for which the selected candidates have to appear at the Military Hospital. Here are some things you should know about the NDA medical test.
1. As a part of the NDA selection process, a medical examination will be conducted at the Military Hospital by a Board of Service Medical Officers.
2. The final selection of the candidate in the NDA will depend on whether they are declared fit for the medical examination.
3. For female candidates, a detailed gynaecological, obstetric, and menstrual history will be required in addition to the regular details.
4. After the candidates get through the NDA selection process, they are trained at the National Defence Academy under their respective branches (Army, Navy, or Air Force).
Mode Of Examination
The examination will be held as an offline Pen & Paper based Test. Both sections will contain only Objective type Multiple Choice Questions.
Medium Of Exmination
Questions Paper will be Bilingual in nature
questions will be available in English as well as in Hindi.
Marking Scheme
Sections of the Test
1. Mathematics
2. General Ability Test
Questions from the above-mentioned sections will be asked in NDA/ NA Examination where, Mathematics will comprise 120 Questions of total 300 Marks and General Ability test will comprise 150 Questions of total 600 Marks, summing up to 270 Questions and 900 Marks
Marking Scheme Highlights
1. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
2. If a candidate given more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above for that question.
3. If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA
The eligibility criteria are outlined in Section 3 of the examination notice. Candidates must satisfy all conditions related to nationality, age, sex, marital status, and educational qualifications. Admission is provisional until verification of original documents after qualifying for the Interview/Personality Test. Below is a structured breakdown:
Nationality
A candidate must be an unmarried male or female and one of the following:
A citizen of India.
A subject of Nepal.
A person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, or East African countries (Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia) or Vietnam, with the intention of permanently settling in India.
Notes:
For categories other than Indian citizens (except Gorkha subjects of Nepal), a certificate of eligibility issued by the Government of India is required.
Gorkha subjects of Nepal do not need a certificate of eligibility.
Age Limits, Sex, and Marital Status
Candidates must be unmarried male or female.
Born not earlier than July 1, 2007, and not later than July 1, 2010.
Date of Birth Verification:
Accepted based on the Matriculation/Secondary School Leaving Certificate, or an equivalent certificate recognized by an Indian University, or an extract from a University Register of Matriculates (certified by the university authority).
No other documents (e.g., horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporations, service records) are accepted.
The date entered in the application is final; no changes are allowed post-submission.
If any discrepancy is found later, disciplinary action may be taken.
Candidates must not marry until completing full training. Marriage after application submission or during training leads to disqualification and liability to refund government expenditure.
Educational Qualifications
For Army Wing of National Defence Academy: 12th Class pass under the 10+2 pattern of School Education, or equivalent examination conducted by a State Education Board or University.
For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy, and 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at Indian Naval Academy: 12th Class pass with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics under the 10+2 pattern of School Education, or equivalent conducted by a State Education Board or University.
Additional Provisions:
Candidates appearing in the 12th Class (under 10+2 pattern or equivalent) can apply provisionally.
Those who qualify the SSB interview but cannot produce original Matriculation/10+2 certificates must submit self-attested photocopies to the specified authorities (Directorate General of Recruiting for NDA, Naval Headquarters for NA) by December 10, 2026. Failure leads to cancellation.
Original certificates from institution principals are acceptable if boards/universities have not issued them yet; certified true copies or photostats are not.
In exceptional cases, the Commission may consider a candidate educationally qualified if their qualifications justify admission (in the Commission’s opinion).
Candidates in 11th Class are not eligible.
Candidates debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any commission in Defence Services are ineligible.
Candidates who previously failed CPSS/PABT are now eligible for Air Force Ground Duty branches.
Other General Notes on Eligibility
Physical standards and other conditions (e.g., medical fitness) are assessed during the SSB process, but the above are the primary entry criteria.
Vacancies are separate for males and females, with merit lists prepared accordingly.
IMPORTANT DATES
The NDA I 2026 exam notification was released on December 10, 2025, with applications accepted from December 10 to December 30. Admit cards are expected around first week of April 2026 , for the offline exam on April 12, 2026, comprising 270 MCQs (900 marks) across Mathematics and GAT, with negative marking (-0.83 and -1.33, respectively). Conducted in English and Hindi, the 5-hour exam leads to the SSB interview for 394 vacancies.
Events | Dates |
NDA I Notification | 10/12/2025 |
NDA I Appication Period | 10/12/2025 – 30/12/2025 |
NDA I Admit Card Release | April First Week 2026 |
NDA I Exam Date | 12/04/2026 |
NDA I Result Declaration | To Be Updated Soon |

