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NDA/NA I & II

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LATEST UPDATE 2026

The official UPSC notification for NDA/NA (I & II) Examination 2026 was released on 10 December 2025, aiming to fill 394 vacancies. Interested candidates could apply online from 10 December 2025 to 30 December 2025. The NDA I Examination 2026 is scheduled to be conducted on 12 April 2026. As per the examination calendar, the NDA II 2026 notification was released on 20 May 2026, and the NDA II Examination 2026 is scheduled to be held on 13 September 2026.



IMPORTANT DATES

Union Public Service Commission publishes the NDA examination dates for both sessions through its official exam calendar. The NDA 2026 exam schedule was announced one year in advance, allowing candidates sufficient time to plan and prepare their strategy effectively. These dates are also important for other examination authorities, as they generally avoid scheduling exams with similar eligibility criteria on the same day. The NDA 1 exam is scheduled to be conducted on April 12, 2026.

The NDA 1 application form and official notification were released on December 10, 2025, and candidates can submit their applications until December 30, 2025. The NDA 2 notification will be issued on May 20, 2026, with the last date to apply being June 9, 2026.

The NDA 2026 schedule outlines all major events related to the examination, including the release of the application form and notification, issuance of the admit card, declaration of results, and publication of the answer key.

Events

Dates

NDA I Notification

10/12/2025

NDA I Appication Period

10/12/2025 – 30/12/2025

NDA I Admit Card Release

First Week April 2026

NDA I Exam Date

12/04/2026

NDA I Result Declaration

To Be Updated Soon

VACANCY DETAILS

The NDA & NA Examination (I) 2026, as per the official UPSC notification released on December 10, 2025, offers a total of 394 vacancies for admission to the 157th Course of the National Defence Academy (NDA) and the 119th Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC), commencing from January 1, 2027 (or as specified in the notice).

Army: 208 vacancies

Navy: 42 vacancies

Air Force: 120 vacancies (92 for Flying Branch, 18 for Ground Duties (Tech), 10 for Ground Duties (Non-Tech))

Naval Academy (10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme): 24 vacancies

Key Notes:

Approximately 25 seats are reserved for women candidates across the wings, reflecting the inclusion of females in NDA since 2021.

Reservations apply for SC (15%), ST (7.5%), OBC (27%), and EWS (10%) categories as per government norms.

A small number of seats may be reserved for Persons with Disabilities (PwD), subject to physical eligibility.

The exact distribution and reservation details are available in the official NDA 2 2025 notification PDF on the UPSC website (upsc.gov.in).



SALARY STRUCTURE

The salary structure for candidates selected through NDA I follows the 7th Pay Commission guidelines and applies uniformly across the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force wings after the 3-year training period at the National Defence Academy (NDA), followed by service-specific training (1 year for Army at IMA, Navy at INA, and Air Force at AFA). During the NDA training, cadets receive a fixed monthly stipend of Rs.56,100 (Pay Level 10), which covers basic needs and is non-commissioned. Upon successful commissioning (as Lieutenant in Army, Sub-Lieutenant in Navy, or Flying Officer in Air Force), officers start at the same basic pay but with additional allowances, leading to an in-hand salary of approximately Rs.70,000–Rs.1,00,000 initially (varying by posting and DA rates, currently ~50% of basic pay). The structure emphasizes rank progression, with promotions based on service years, performance, and exams. The highest salary reaches Rs. 2,50,000 (fixed) for top ranks like Chief of Army Staff (COAS).

Rank-Wise Salary Structure (Basic Pay as per 7th CPC)

The basic pay is determined by Pay Levels in the Pay Matrix. Military Service Pay (MSP) of Rs.15,500 is added for ranks from Lieutenant to Brigadier. Dearness Allowance (DA) is revised periodically (currently ~50%, so ~Rs.28,050 on starting basic pay).

NDA Salary – Army, Navy, Air Force

NDA Posts or Ranks

Salary of NDA Officer (Per Month)

Stipend during the training of the candidates in IMA

INR 56,100/

Lieutenant

INR 56,100/- to INR 1,77, 500/- 

Captain

INR 61,300/- to 01,93,900/- 

Major

INR 69,400/- to 02,07,200/-

Lieutenant Colonel

INR 01,21,200/- to 02,12,400/-

Colonel

INR 01,30,600/- to 02,15,900/- 

Brigadier

INR 01,39,600/- to 02,17,600/-

Major General

INR 01,44,200/- to 02,18,200/- 

Lt. General HAG Scale

INR 01,82,200/- to 02,24,100/- 

HAG+ Scale

INR 02,05,400/- To  02,24,400/-

VCOAS/ Army Cdr/ Lt Gen (NFSG)

INR 02,25,000/- Fixed

COAS

INR 02,50,000/- Fixed


ALLOWANCES & PERKS

NDA Allowances to the Cadets

Allowances to NDA Officers

Amount Payable

Dearness Allowance

Admissible at the same rates and under the same conditions as are applicable to the civilian personnel from time to time.

Kit Maintenance Allowances

INR 20,000/- Annually with Dress Allowances

Para Allowance

Rs 10,500/- Per Month

Special Forces Allowance

Rs 25,000/- Per Month

Para Jump Instructor Allowance

Rs 10,500/- Per Month

Project Allowance

Rs 3,400/- Per Month

Para Reserve Allowance

Rs 2,625/- Per Month

Technical Allowance (Tier-I)

Rs 3,000/- Per Month

Technical Allowance (Tier-II)

Rs 4,500/- Per Month

HOW TO APPLY

To apply for the NDA I exam, candidates had to submit applications online via upsconline.nic.in between December 10, 2025, and December 30, 2025. The process involved completing One-Time Registration (OTR), filling the form, uploading a photo, signature, and ID proof (e.g., Aadhaar), selecting exam centers, and paying Rs. 100 (exempt for SC/ST/females/sons of JCOs/NCOs/ORs). A correction window was open from July 7 to July 9, 2025. Since the application period has closed, candidates should await the admit card (expected September 3, 2025) and check upsconline.nic.in for updates.

Registration:  Visit the official wbsite of UPSC. Click on “ONLINE APPLICATION FOR VARIOUS EXAMINATIONS OF UPSC” and read the instructions carefully and click on “Yes”.

Filling up the NDA application form: Candidates need to fill in their personal, academic, and contact details in the NDA application form and note down system-generated application numbers. They also have to create a password that will be used for future logins. Below are the details that the candidates should fill in the application form.  

Basic details: Here, candidates need to fill in the category, nationality, personal details, select exam centres, date of birth, gender, father’s name or mother’s name, address, etc. 

Preferences: On page 1 fill in the details such as name, gender, date of birth, parents’ name, nationality, etc., and click on “continue”. On page 2, select the options and mark them between 1 to 4 or mark ‘0’ if you do not want to give any preference. Those who are from Sainik/Military School or Son of JCO/NCO/Other Rank Officer must fill pages 3 & page 4.

Upload of Prescribed Documents & Images (Photographs and Scanned Signatures): upload photographs, signatures, and thumb impressions as per specification. Images that are not as per the prescribed specification shall not be considered and may lead to rejection of the application.

Choose your Test City. Pay the Examination Fee: Now Choose your Test City & Pay the Examination Fee. The application fees can be paid online or by depositing the money in any branch of SBI Bank.

Print the Confirmation page: The last step is to take printouts of the confirmation page, after successful payment of NDA  application fees.


Application Fees

For General / OBC: 100/-

For SC / ST:  (Nil)

For All Category Female:  (Nil)


Note: Pay the Examination Fee Through Net Banking, Debit Card, or Credit Card or Pay the Exam Fee Through Cash E Challan Fee Mode Submit the Exam Fee at State Bank of India SBI Any Branches in India.



EXAM CENTERS

The UPSC NDA I  exam is conducted at over 70-81 centers across India, including major cities like Agartala, Ahmedabad, Aizawl, Bengaluru, Bhopal, Chandigarh, Chennai, Delhi, Dispur, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Jammu, Kolkata, Lucknow, Mumbai, Nagpur, Port Blair, Shimla, and Thiruvananthapuram, with full state-wise lists in the official notification. Candidates select preferences during application on a first-come-first-serve basis; allotted centers are confirmed on the admit card, and no changes are allowed.

S. No

Exam Centers

1

AGARTALA

2

AGRA

3

AJMER

4

AHMEDABAD

5

AIZAWL

6

ALIGARH

7

ALMORA (UTTARAKHAND)

8

ANANTPUR (ANDHRA PRADESH)

9

CHHATRAPATI SAMBHAJINAGAR [AURANGABAD (MAHARASHTRA)]

10

BENGALURU

11

BAREILLY

12

BHOPAL

13

BHUBANESWAR

14

BILASPUR (CHHATISGARH)

15

CHANDIGARH

16

CHENNAI

17

COIMBATORE

18

CUTTACK

19

DEHRADUN

20

DELHI

21

DHARAMSHALA

22

DHARWAD

23

DISPUR

24

FARIDABAD

25

GANGTOK

26

GAYA

27

GAUTAM BUDDH NAGAR

28

GHAZIABAD

29

GORAKHPUR

30

GURUGRAM

31

GWALIOR

32

HYDERABAD

33

IMPHAL

34

INDORE

35

ITANAGAR

36

JABALPUR

37

JAIPUR

38

JAMMU

39

JODHPUR

40

JORHAT

41

KARGIL

42

KOCHI

43

KOHIMA

44

KOLKATA

45

KOZHIKODE (CALICUT)

46

LEH

47

LUCKNOW

48

LUDHIANA

49

MADURAI

50

MANDI

51

MUMBAI

52

MYSORE

53

NAGPUR

54

NASHIK

55

NAVI MUMBAI

56

PANAJI (GOA)

57

PATNA

58

SRI VIJAYA PURAM (PORT BLAIR)

59

PRAYAGRAJ (ALLAHABAD)

60

PUDUCHERRY

61

PUNE

62

RAIPUR

63

RAJKOT

64

RANCHI

65

SAMBALPUR

66

SHILLONG

67

SHIMLA

68

SILIGUDI

69

SRINAGAR

70

SRINAGAR (UTTARAKHAND)

71

SURAT

72

THANE

73

THIRUVANANTHAPURAM

74

TIRUCHIRAPALLI

75

TIRUPATI

76

UDAIPUR

77

VARANASI

78

VELLORE

79

VIJAYAVADA

80

VISHAKHAPATNAM

81

HANUMAKONDA (WARANGAL URBAN)


ADMIT CARD

The NDA I Exam 2026 is scheduled for April 12, 2026, and its admit cards will likely be released by the UPSC around the first week of April, specifically around April 2, 2026, with direct download links available on the UPSC website a few days before the exam


Candidates can follow the below-mentioned steps to download admit card for the NDA  exam:

Step 1- Visit the official website.

Step 2- On the home page, find ‘E-admit card National Defence Academy Examination,’ link.

Step 3- The login page opens in a new tab.

Step 4- Read the instructions carefully before downloading.

Step 5- Agree to the terms and conditions.

Step 6- Select any of the options – registration number or roll number.

Step 7- If candidates select the registration number option, they need to enter the registration number, date of birth, and random image.

Step 8- If candidates select the roll number option, they need to enter the roll number, date of birth, and random image.

Step 9- Click the ‘Submit’ button. Download the admit card and take its printout.




RESULTS

The UPSC NDA I 2026 written result is expected in May 2026, released as a PDF on upsc.gov.in with qualified roll numbers for the SSB interview. Final merit (written + SSB) follows in early 2026; download via official link, no login required for initial PDF.


The steps to check the NDA Results are given below:

Step 1- Go to the official website.

Step 2- NDA result opens on a new page in PDF form.

Step 3- Candidates can search their roll numbers and names in the result PDF through Ctrl+F.

Step 4- If their roll numbers and names are in the result PDF, this means candidates have qualified the exam.

Step 5- Download the result PDF and take its printout.

OVERVIEW

The National Defense Academy Exam, or NDA, is a Nationwide Entrance Exam Administered by UPSC for candidates wishing to join the defense services. The Exam is taken for Recruitment into the Army, Air Force and Naval Academy. The NDA Exam takes place twice a year in two stages Written exam and SSB interview. First the candidate must pass the Written Eexam, then he will be invited to an SSB interview, those who pass the interview must undergo a Full Medical Examination based on the standards set by the Board. 

Particulars

Description

Exam Full Name

National Defense Academy Exam

Conducting Authority

Union Public Service Commission

Admission Purpose

Recuitment into the Army, Airforce & Naval Academy

Exam Level

National Level Exam

Application Mode

Online

Exam Date

12 April 2026

Official Website

https://upsc.gov.in

SELECTION PROCESS

The NDA I selection process for admission to the National Defence Academy (NDA) and Naval Academy (NA) involves two stages:

Written Examination (900 marks): Conducted on April 12, 2026, it includes two objective MCQ papers: Mathematics (300 marks, 120 questions, 2.5 hours) and General Ability Test (GAT, 600 marks, 150 questions, 2.5 hours). Candidates must score a minimum of 25% in each paper to qualify. Negative marking applies (-0.83 for Maths, -1.33 for GAT).

SSB Interview (900 marks): Qualifiers of the written exam are called for a 5-day Services Selection Board (SSB) process, including:

Day 1: Screening (Officer Intelligence Rating, Picture Perception & Description Test).

Days 2–4: Psychological tests, group tasks (e.g., group discussion, obstacle course), and personal interview.

Day 5: Conference and final recommendation.

Medical Examination: Conducted post-SSB to ensure physical fitness (e.g., height, vision standards).

Final Merit List: Based on combined scores (Written + SSB, total 1800 marks). Top candidates (for 406 vacancies) join NDA (Pune) or INA (Ezhimala) for training starting January 1, 2026. Check upsc.gov.in for updates. 

EXAM SYLLABUS

The NDA I Exam conducted by UPSC has two papers – Mathematics (300 marks) and General Ability Test – GAT (600 marks), followed by the SSB Interview (900 marks). The Mathematics paper covers Algebra, Trigonometry, Geometry, Mensuration, Statistics, Probability, Matrices & Determinants, Vectors, 3D, and Calculus. The GAT is divided into English (Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension, Usage) and General Knowledge, which includes Physics, Chemistry, Biology, History, Geography, Polity, Economy, and Current Affairs.

Name of Test

Topic

Weightage
Mathematics

Algebra

20 Q

Matrices & Determinants

10 Q

Trigonometry

20 Q

Analytical Geometry Of Two and Three Dimensions

16-20 Q

Differential Calculus

25 Q

Integral Calculus and Differential Equations

20 Q

Vector Algebra

10 Q

Statistics and Probability

10 Q
General Ability Test

English

50 Q

General Knowledge : 

8-10 Q

History, Freedom & Movement, Geography

20 Q

Current Events

10 Q

Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology)

35-40 Q


MATHEMATICS DETAILED SYLLABUS

The detailed syllabus for Mathematics, along with Topic Description, Topic Example & Topic Difficulty, is given below:

TopicTopic DescriptionTopic ExampleTopic Difficulty Level
Algebra

Concept of set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams.

De Morgan laws, Cartesian product, relation, equivalence relation.

If one of the roots of the equation 2x2 + ax +b = 0 is 2, then what is (a – b) equal to?

If p+q = 10 and pq = 5, What will be the numerical value of (p/q + q/p)

 If 6x-5y = 13 , 7x + 2y = 23 , then 11x + 18 y =?

10+2 level

Representation of real numbers on a line.

Complex numbers—basic properties, modulus, argument, cube roots of unity. Binary system of numbers.

Conversion of a number in decimal system to binary system and vice versa. Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions.

Quadratic equations with real coefficients. Solution of linear inequations of two  variables by graphs.

Permutation and Combination. Binomial theorem and its applications. Logarithms and their applications.

10+2 level
Matrices & Determinants

Types of matrices, operations on matrices. Determinant of a matrix, basic properties of determinants.

Adjoint and inverse of a square matrix, Applications-Solution of a system of linear
equations in two or three unknowns by Cramer’s rule and by Matrix Method.



10+2 level
Trigonometry

Angles and their measures in degrees and in radians. Trigonometrical ratios.

Trigonometric identities Sum and difference formulae. Multiple and Sub-multiple angles.

Inverse trigonometric
functions. Applications-Height and distance, properties of triangles.

If A= 18º then what is the value of 4 Sin2A + 2 Sin A?

What is the value of  (1080º) ?

From the top of a building of height “h” meter, the angle of depression of an object on the ground is “A”. What is the distance (in meter) of the object from the foot of the building?
10+2 level
Analytical Geometry
Of Two and Three Dimensions

Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system. Distance formula. Equation of a line in various forms.

Angle between two lines. Distance of a point from a line. Equation of a circle in standard and in general form.

Standard forms of parabola, ellipse and hyperbola. Eccentricity and axis of a conic Point in a three-dimensional space, distance between two points.

Direction Cosines and direction ratios. Equation two points Direction Cosines and direction ratios,

Direction Cosines and direction ratios

What is the sum of the squares of direction cosines of the line joining the points (1,2,-3) & (-2, 3, 1) ?

The angle of elevation of a tower at a level ground is 90º. The angle of elevation becomes “A” . when moved 2m towards the tower. If the height of tower is 1m, then what is “A” equal to?

Two poles are 12m and 4m high. The line joining their tips makes an angle of 45º with the horizontal. What is the distance between the poles?
10+2 level
Differential Calculus

Concept of a real valued function–domain, range and graph of a function. Composite functions, one to one, onto and inverse functions. Notion of limit,

Standard limits—examples. Continuity of functions—examples, algebraic operations on continuous functions. Derivative of function at a point,

geometrical and physical interpretation of a derivative—applications. Derivatives of sum, product and quotient of functions, derivative of a function

 with respect to another function, derivative of a composite function. Second order derivatives.

Increasing and decreasing functions. Application of derivatives in problems of maxima and minima

What is the solution of differential equation y= ln x – ln y ?


What is the solution of the differential equation


What is the slope of the tangent to the curve  at x = 2t+ 5t – 5, y = 4t– 4t – 3 at t = 6 ?

How many tangents are parallel to x axis for the curve y = x2 – 4x + 3 ?

10+2 level
Integral Calculus and Differential Equations

Integration as inverse of differentiation, integration by substitution and by parts,

standard integrals involving algebraic expressions, trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions.

Evaluation of definite integrals—determination of areas of plane regions bounded by curves—applications.






Find the general solution to the differential equation.



10+2 level

Definition of order and degree of a differential equation, formation of a differential equation by examples.

General and particular solution of a differential equation, solution of first order
and first degree differential equations of various types—examples.

Application in problems of growth and decay.

10+2 level
Vector Algebra

Vectors in two and three dimensions, magnitude and direction of a vector. Unit and null vectors,

addition of vectors, scalar multiplication of a vector, scalar product or dot product of
two vectors.

Vector product or cross product of  two vectors. Applications—work done by a force and moment of a force and in geometrical problems.

 If a, b and c are unit vectors, then |a – b|2 + |b – c|2 + |c – a|2 does not exceed?


Let b = 4i + 3j and c be two vectors perpendicular to each other in the xy-plane. All vectors in the same plane having projections 1 and 2 along b and c respectively are given by _________.?

10+2 level
Statistics and
Probability


Statistics : Classification of data, Frequency  distribution, cumulative frequency distribution examples.

Graphical representation—Histogram, Pie Chart, frequency polygon—
examples. Measures of Central tendency—Mean, median and mode.

Variance and standard deviation—determination and comparison. Correlation and regression.

The mean of 9 observations is 16. One more observation is included and the new mean becomes 17. What is the 10th observation?

The average of x numbers is y and average of y numbers is x. Then, What is the average of all the numbers taken together?

The mean weight of 34 students of a school is 42 kg. If the weight of the teacher be included, the mean rises by 400 g. find the weight of the teacher in kg

10+2 level

Probability :
Random experiment, outcomes and associated sample space, events, mutually exclusive and exhaustive events, impossible and certain events.

Union and Intersection of events. Complementary, elementary and composite events.

Definition of probability—classical and statistical—examples. Elementary theorems on probability—simple problems. Conditional probability, Bayes’ theorem—simple problems. Random variable as function on a sample space. Binomial distribution, examples of random experiments giving rise to Binomial distribution.

What is the probability that a leap year selected at random contains 53 Saturdays?

Three Discs are thrown. What is the probability that the same number will appear on each of them?

Out of 400 first year students, 150 passes in first semester and 220 passed in the second semester. If 130 did not pass in either semester, how many passed in both semesters?
10+2 level

GENERAL ABILITY TEST DETAILED SYLLABUS

The detailed syllabus for General Ability Test along with Topic Description, Topic Example & Topic Difficulty, is given below :-

TopicTopic DescriptionTopic ExampleTopic Difficulty Level
EnglishGrammar and usage, vocabulary, comprehension and cohesion in extended text to test the candidate’s proficiency in English.

 Select the word that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.
The slump in business made Mr. Sharma Bankrupt. a) Rise
b) Disease
c)  Fall
d) Theft

 
Section ‘A’
(Physics)

Physical Properties and States of Matter,

Mass, Weight, Volume, Density, and Specific Gravity,

Principle of Archimedes, Pressure Barometer.

If some object is weighed when submerged in water, what will happen to its weight compared to its weight in air? 


Which one among the following waves carries the maximum energy per photon?
(a) X-rays
(b) Radio waves
(c) Light waves
(d) Microwaves

Which one of the following is the value of 1 kWh of energy converted into joules?
(a) 1.8 x 106 J
(b) 3.6 x 106 J
(c) 6.0 x 106 J
(d) 7.2 x 106 J


Which one of the following is an example of the force of gravity of the earth acting on a vibrating pendulum bob?
(a) Applied force
(b) Frictional force
(c) Restoring force
(d) Virtual force

  

Two convex lenses with power 2 dioptre are kept in contact with each other. The focal length of the combined lens system is
(a) 0.10 m
(b) 2 m
(c) 4 m
(d) 0.25 m



A container is first filled with water and then the entire water is replaced by mercury. Mercury has a density of 13.6 x 103 kg/m3. If X is the weight of the water and Y is the weight of the mercury, then
(a) X = Y
(b) X = 13.6 Y
(c) Y = 13.6 X
(d) None of the above

How long does light take to reach the Earth from the Sun?
(a) About 4 minutes
(b) About 8 minutes
(c) About 24 minutes
(d) About 24 hours

10+2 level

Barometer. Motion of objects, Velocity and Acceleration, Newton’s Laws of Motion,

Force and Momentum, Parallelogram of Forces, Stability and Equilibrium of bodies,

Gravitation, elementary ideas of work, Power and Energy. Effects of Heat, Measurement of Temperature and Heat,

change of State and Latent Heat, Modes of
transference of Heat.

Sound waves and their properties, Simple
musical instruments.

Rectilinear propagation of Light, Reflection and refraction. Spherical mirrors and Lenses, Human Eye.

Natural and Artificial Magnets,

Properties of a Magnet, Earth as a Magnet.

Static and Current Electricity, conductors and Nonconductors, Ohm’s Law,

Simple Electrical Circuits, Heating, Lighting and Magnetic effects of Current,

Measurement of
Electrical Power, Primary and Secondary Cells, Use of X-Rays.

General Principles in the working of :- Simple Pendulum, Simple Pulleys, Siphon,

Levers, Balloon, Pumps, Hydrometer, Pressure Cooker, Thermos Flask, Gramophone,

Telegraphs, Telephone, Periscope, Telescope,
Microscope, Mariner’s Compass; Lightening Conductors, Safety Fuses.

Section ‘B’
(Chemistry)

Physical and Chemical changes. Elements, Mixtures and Compounds, Symbols,

Formulae and Simple Chemical Equations, Law of Chemical Combination

(excluding problems).
Properties of Air and Water.

The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state is
(a) 13·6 MeV
(b) 13·6 eV
(c) 13·6 Joule
(d) Zero

Which compound, when dissolved in water, conducts electricity and forms a basic solution?
(a) HCl
(b) CH3COOH
(c) CH30H
(d) NaOH

The proposition ‘equal volumes of different gases contain equal numbers of molecules at the same temperature and pressure’ is known as
(a) Avogadro’s hypothesis
(b) Gay-Lussac’s hypothesis
(c) Planck’s hypothesis
(d) Kirchhoff’s theory


Zinc is used to protect Iron from corrosion because zinc is
(a) more electropositive than iron
(b) cheaper than iron
(c) a bluish-white metal
(d) a good conductor of heat and electricity

10+2 level

Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen and Carbon dioxide,

Oxidation and Reduction. Acids, bases and salts. Carbon—different forms.

Fertilizer —Natural and
Artificial. Material used in the preparation of substances like Soap,
Glass, Ink, Paper, Cement,

Paints, Safety Matches and Gun- Powder. Elementary ideas about the structure of Atom,

Atomic Equivalent and Molecular Weights, Valency.

Section ‘C’
(General Science)

Difference between the living and non-living.

Basis of Life—Cells, Protoplasms and Tissues.

Growth and Reproduction in Plants an Animals.

Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for the biosynthesis of
(a) Omega-3 fatty acids
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin B
(d) Vitamin C

Melanin is the natural pigment that gives colour to human skin, hair and the iris. It provides protection against
(a) Ultraviolet radiation
(b) Infrared radiation
(c) X-ray radiation
(d) Short wave radio radiation

Tendons through which muscles are connected to bones are tightly compacted bundles of which one of the following long fibrous protein?
(a) Fibrin
(b) Collagen
(c) Elastin(d) Cellulose

10+2 level

Elementary knowledge of Human Body and its important organs.

Common Epidemics, their causes and prevention.

Food—Source of Energy for man. Constituents of food, Balanced Diet.

The Solar System—Meteors and Comets, Eclipses.
Achievements of Eminent Scientists.

Section ‘D’
(History, Freedom Movement etc.)
A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation.

Who among the following is the author of the book The Indian Struggle, 1920 – 1934?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam
(b) Jayprakash Narayan
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Manabendra Nath Roy

Which one of the following associations was founded in London by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866?
(a) The Bengal British India Society
(b) The East India Association
(c) The British Indian Association
(d) The Madras Native Association

Which one of the following travelogues has given an insight on the reign of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq?
(a) Ibn Battuta’s Rihla
(b) Francois Bernier’s Travels in the Mogul Empire
(c) Niccolao Manucci’s Storia do Mogor
(d) Tavernier’s Travels in India

10+2 level

Freedom Movement in India.

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration. Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India.

Panchayati Raj, Co-operatives and Community Development.

Bhoodan, Sarvodaya, National Integration and
Welfare State, Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi.

Forces shaping the modern world; Renaissance, Exploration and Discovery;

War of American Independence. French Revolution,
Industrial Revolution and Russian Revolution.

Impact of Science
and Technology on Society.

Concept of one World, United Nations,
Panchsheel, Democracy,

Socialism and Communism. Role of India
in the present world.

Section ‘E’
(Geography)

The Earth, its shape and size. Lattitudes and Longitudes, Concept of time.

International Date Line. Movements of Earth and their effects.

The Coriolis effect is the result of
(a) Pressure gradient
(b) Earth’s axis of inclination
(c) Earth’s rotation
(d) Earth’s revolution

Which one of the following is not an igneous rock?
(a) Gabbro
(b) Granite
(c) Dolomite
(d) Basalt

Which one of the following States in India has the largest area under forest cover?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Sunrise in eastern Arunachal Pradesh would be about how many hours before the sunrise in western Gujarat?
(a) One hour
(b) Two hours
(c) Three hours
(d) Four hours

Where is Mekong Delta located?
(a) Thailand
(b) Cambodia
(c) Myanmar
(d) Vietnam

10+2 level

Origin of Earth. Rocks and their classification; Weathering—Mechanical and Chemical, Earthquakes and Volcanoes.

Ocean Currents and Tides Atmosphere and its composition

Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure, Planetary Winds, Cyclones and Anti-cyclones;

Humidity; Condensation and Precipitation

Types of Climate, Major Natural regions of the World. Regional Geography of India Climate, Natural vegetation.

Mineral and Power resources; location and distribution of agricultural and Industrial activities

Important Sea ports and main sea, land and air routes of India.

Main items of Imports and Exports of India.

Section ‘F’
(Current Events)

Knowledge of Important events that have happened in India in the recent years.

Current important world events. Prominent personalities—both Indian and International

including those connected with cultural activities and sports.

In the recently concluded elections in 1 December 2020, Faustin-Archange Touadéra has won a second term in office as President of one of which country?Based on Past 5-6 Months

EXAM PATTERN

The first stage of the NDA selection process is a written exam and the second stage is an Interview round. It is also followed by a detailed medical examination, which the candidates must pass. Below, you will find all details regarding the different stages in the NDA selection:

Stage 1 – Written Exam

Stage 2 – Interview with SSB

Stage 3 – Medical Examination

Stage 4 – Document Verification

Test Mode

Name of Test

No. of Questions

Maximum Marks

Duration
Objective Type Offline Pen
& Paper Based Test

Mathematics

120 Q300 Marks150 Minutes

General Ability Test

150 Q600 Marks150 Minutes

Total

270 Q900 Marks300 Minutes


Note :- Examination for Mathematics & General Ability Test will be held separately. A break will be provided to the candidates between Paper- I and Paper- II


Written Exam

According to the NDA selection process, the candidates will first have to appear for a written exam. It will be a three-hour, 900-mark objective test comprising of two sections – Mathematics and General Ability. Only the candidates who secure the minimum cut-off marks will be selected for the next stage of the recruitment process.


Document Verification

An essential component of the NDA selection process is document verification and submission. At the time of the interview, the selected candidates are required to bring their documents for verification.

1. Proof of education – 10th or 10+2 certificate.

2. Caste certificate for applicable candidates.

3. Proof of identity.

4. Proof of address.


SSB Interview

Stage 2 of the NDA selection process involves the interview conducted by the Services Selection Board (SSB) for all the candidates qualifying for NA and NDA posts. If you clear the written test, your interview call letter will reach you with all the details regarding the interview date, time, and venue.


Note:

1. That the final recruitment under the NDA selection process will be merit-based. The performance of candidates in the written test and interview will be considered for the same.

2. Candidates applying for the Air Force will have to qualify for the Pilot Aptitude Test (PAT) and Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS) in order to be considered for final selection.

3. The SSB interview process takes place over a duration of 4-5 days.


Medical Examination

Candidates who are shortlisted in the SSB interview round are recommended by the authorities for a detailed medical checkup. This is an integral part of the NDA selection process, for which the selected candidates have to appear at the Military Hospital. Here are some things you should know about the NDA medical test.

1. As a part of the NDA selection process, a medical examination will be conducted at the Military Hospital by a Board of Service Medical Officers.

2. The final selection of the candidate in the NDA will depend on whether they are declared fit for the medical examination.

3. For female candidates, a detailed gynaecological, obstetric, and menstrual history will be required in addition to the regular details.

4. After the candidates get through the NDA selection process, they are trained at the National Defence Academy under their respective branches (Army, Navy, or Air Force). 

Mode Of Examination

The examination will be held as an offline Pen & Paper based Test. Both sections will contain only Objective type Multiple Choice Questions.


Medium Of Exmination

Questions Paper will be Bilingual in nature

questions will be available in English as well as in Hindi.


Marking Scheme

Sections of the Test

1. Mathematics

2. General Ability Test

Questions from the above-mentioned sections will be asked in NDA/ NA  Examination where, Mathematics will comprise 120 Questions of total 300 Marks and General Ability test will comprise 150 Questions of total 600 Marks, summing up to 270 Questions and 900 Marks


Marking Scheme Highlights

1. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

2. If a candidate given more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above for that question.

3. If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA

The eligibility criteria are outlined in Section 3 of the examination notice. Candidates must satisfy all conditions related to nationality, age, sex, marital status, and educational qualifications. Admission is provisional until verification of original documents after qualifying for the Interview/Personality Test. Below is a structured breakdown:

Nationality

A candidate must be an unmarried male or female and one of the following:

A citizen of India.

A subject of Nepal.

A person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, or East African countries (Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia) or Vietnam, with the intention of permanently settling in India.


Notes:

For categories other than Indian citizens (except Gorkha subjects of Nepal), a certificate of eligibility issued by the Government of India is required.

Gorkha subjects of Nepal do not need a certificate of eligibility.

Age Limits, Sex, and Marital Status

Candidates must be unmarried male or female.

Born not earlier than July 1, 2007, and not later than July 1, 2010.

Date of Birth Verification:

Accepted based on the Matriculation/Secondary School Leaving Certificate, or an equivalent certificate recognized by an Indian University, or an extract from a University Register of Matriculates (certified by the university authority).

No other documents (e.g., horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporations, service records) are accepted.

The date entered in the application is final; no changes are allowed post-submission.

If any discrepancy is found later, disciplinary action may be taken.

Candidates must not marry until completing full training. Marriage after application submission or during training leads to disqualification and liability to refund government expenditure.

Educational Qualifications

For Army Wing of National Defence Academy: 12th Class pass under the 10+2 pattern of School Education, or equivalent examination conducted by a State Education Board or University.

For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy, and 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at Indian Naval Academy: 12th Class pass with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics under the 10+2 pattern of School Education, or equivalent conducted by a State Education Board or University.

Additional Provisions:

Candidates appearing in the 12th Class (under 10+2 pattern or equivalent) can apply provisionally.

Those who qualify the SSB interview but cannot produce original Matriculation/10+2 certificates must submit self-attested photocopies to the specified authorities (Directorate General of Recruiting for NDA, Naval Headquarters for NA) by December 10, 2026. Failure leads to cancellation.

Original certificates from institution principals are acceptable if boards/universities have not issued them yet; certified true copies or photostats are not.

In exceptional cases, the Commission may consider a candidate educationally qualified if their qualifications justify admission (in the Commission’s opinion).

Candidates in 11th Class are not eligible.

Candidates debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any commission in Defence Services are ineligible.

Candidates who previously failed CPSS/PABT are now eligible for Air Force Ground Duty branches.

Other General Notes on Eligibility

Physical standards and other conditions (e.g., medical fitness) are assessed during the SSB process, but the above are the primary entry criteria.

Vacancies are separate for males and females, with merit lists prepared accordingly.

IMPORTANT DATES

The NDA I 2026 exam notification was released on December 10, 2025, with applications accepted from December 10 to December 30. Admit cards are expected around first week of April 2026 , for the offline exam on April 12, 2026, comprising 270 MCQs (900 marks) across Mathematics and GAT, with negative marking (-0.83 and -1.33, respectively). Conducted in English and Hindi, the 5-hour exam leads to the SSB interview for 394 vacancies.

Events

Dates

NDA I Notification

10/12/2025

NDA I Appication Period

10/12/2025 – 30/12/2025

NDA I Admit Card Release

April First Week 2026

NDA I Exam Date

12/04/2026

NDA I Result Declaration

To Be Updated Soon